Surveillance Camera Technologies
Q: How can fast-moving objects be captured clearly and fluently in surveillance video?
A: Utilizing high frame rate cameras with recommended exposure times and adjusting settings such as 3D DNR and WDR can reduce motion blur and tailing effects.
Q: What is the purpose of rotate mode in IP cameras?
A: Rotate mode optimizes the use of the 16:9 aspect ratio in narrow-view scenes by adjusting the camera orientation to achieve a normal view.
Q: How does second-generation lens technology improve image clarity in IP cameras?
A: Second-generation lenses with blue glass reduce halo effects caused by strong light sources, ensuring clearer images in challenging lighting conditions.
Q: What function does defog technology serve in surveillance cameras?
A: Defog technology restores details and color in images captured in poor weather conditions, such as smoke or fog, maintaining clarity and accuracy.
True or False: WDR technology is essential for capturing clear images in scenes with strong backlighting.
- True.
True or False: Rotate mode adjusts the camera lens to capture panoramic views.
- False.
True or False: Anti-IR Reflection Dome technology reduces image blurring caused by reflected IR light.
- True.
True or False: Deep fog technology enhances image clarity in low-light conditions.
- False.
Short Answers: Advanced Functions of IPCs
Q: What is the purpose of ROI function in IPCs?
A: ROI function allocates more encoding resources to specific regions of the video, improving quality in those areas.
Q: How does third party integration benefit IPCs?
A: Third party integration platform allows for the development and installation of external applications, expanding the functionality of Hikvision network cameras.
True or False
- ROI function helps to improve video quality by allocating more encoding resources to specific regions of the video.
Answer: True - Third party integration platform restricts the installation of external applications on Hikvision network cameras.
Answer: False
- Q: What are the key features of Hikvision speakers?
A: Hikvision speakers support multiple broadcast modes, including live and scheduled broadcasts, alarm linkage, and emergency mustering. They also feature text-to-speech functionality, built-in EMMC storage, two-way audio communication, and video and audio linkage with CCTV systems. - Q: How do Hikvision speakers enhance security measures?
A: Hikvision speakers provide timely alerts and notifications through event-triggered audio alarms, deter intruders with strategic placement for perimeter protection, and integrate seamlessly with CCTV systems to offer synchronized audio announcements. - Q: What advanced features do Hikvision speakers offer for system stability and management?
A: Hikvision speakers support batch device addition and upgrade, dual-file backup, remote configuration, and NTP time synchronization, ensuring system reliability, scalability, and ease of management. - Q: How can Hikvision speakers address common troubleshooting issues in surveillance systems?
A: Hikvision speakers help resolve blurry night images by adjusting focusing points, improve image quality for moving objects by increasing exposure time, and prevent scrolling lines in images by aligning exposure time with light frequency. - Q: What applications and usage scenarios are suitable for Hikvision speakers?
A: Hikvision speakers are ideal for perimeter protection, event-triggered audio alarms, and integration with CCTV systems to enhance security measures and situational awareness in various environments.NVR Section
**True or False:**1. NVRs only serve as recorders and do not offer advanced management features. (False)
2. The Q series NVR supports motion detection 2.0 and can achieve a resolution of up to 4K. (True)
3. The I series NVR is designed with deep learning algorithms for perimeter protection. (True)
4. NVRs with One X designation indicate the presence of deep learning technology. (True)
5. The number 16 in the NVR name represents the number of HDD slots available. (False)
6. The DS in the NVR name signifies that the product belongs to the Super i series. (False)
7. Hikvision NVRs do not support Wi-Fi connectivity. (False)
8. NVRs with the letter N in their name do not support deep learning technology. (False)
9. The M series NVRs offer entry-level features and lower performance compared to other series. (False)
10. The Intelligent NVR Deep in Mind series is identified by the letter E in the product name. (False)**Multiple Choice Questions:**
1. What does the letter I in the NVR name signify?
– A) International
– B) Intelligent
– C) Interface
– D) Integration
– **Answer: A) International**2. Which NVR series features deep learning technology for advanced applications?
– A) Q series
– B) K series
– C) M series
– D) I series
– **Answer: D) I series**3. How many HDD slots does an NVR with the number 8 in its name typically have?
– A) 4
– B) 8
– C) 16
– D) 24
– **Answer: B) 8**4. What does the letter X signify in an NVR name?
– A) Extra storage capacity
– B) Deep learning technology
– C) Entry-level features
– D) Wi-Fi connectivity
– **Answer: B) Deep learning technology**5. Which series of NVRs is identified by the designation “Super eye”?
– A) 71 series
– B) Q series
– C) M series
– D) I series
– **Answer: C) M series**6. What does the number 71 in an NVR name typically indicate?
– A) Number of IP channels supported
– B) Resolution capability
– C) Entry-level designation
– D) Wi-Fi connectivity
– **Answer: C) Entry-level designation**7. Which feature distinguishes the Intelligent NVR Deep in Mind series?
– A) Super eye technology
– B) Deep learning algorithms
– C) Wi-Fi connectivity
– D) Entry-level design
– **Answer: B) Deep learning algorithms**8. What is the primary role of NVRs in a CCTV system?
– A) Image capture
– B) Decoding, storage, and playback
– C) Camera management
– D) Data transmission
– **Answer: B) Decoding, storage, and playback**9. Which NVR series offers the highest performance and reliability?
– A) Q series
– B) M series
– C) K series
– D) I series
– **Answer: D) I series**10. How can users distinguish between different NVR products based on their names?
– A) By the number of IP channels supported
– B) By the resolution capability
– C) By analyzing the letters and numbers in the name
– D) By the presence of deep learning technology
– **Answer: C) By analyzing the letters and numbers in the name** - **True or False:**1. NVRs require a weak password for activation to enhance security. (False)
2. Plug and play method for adding IP cameras to NVR requires cameras to be active before connection. (True)
3. Enhanced Poe function is used to manage camera protocols and OSD settings. (False)
4. IP channel import and export feature allows easy transfer of camera configurations between NVRs using USB. (True)
5. Virtual host function is used to connect devices in different network segments on the same LAN. (False)
6. HDD quota allows dividing one HDD into multiple quotas for different cameras based on their storage needs. (True)
7. HDD group mode assigns cameras to different HDD groups for more organized storage management. (True)
8. File-level data security in NVRs focuses on protecting individual files from unauthorized access. (True)
9. System-level data security in NVRs includes protecting the physical hardware from damage. (False)
10. Secure data management in NVRs only focuses on protecting data during transmission. (False)**Multiple Choice Questions:**1. How can users enhance security when activating an NVR?
– A) Create a weak password
– B) Export the GUID for future password reset
– C) Share the password with multiple users
– D) Skip the activation process
– **Answer: B) Export the GUID for future password reset**2. Which method is used for direct connection of PoE cameras to NVR ports?
– A) Activate and quick add
– B) Plug and play
– C) Custom add
– D) 4G IP cameras
– **Answer: B) Plug and play**3. What is the purpose of the IP channel import and export feature?
– A) Manage camera protocols
– B) Transfer camera configurations between NVRs
– C) Enhance network security
– D) Monitor bandwidth usage
– **Answer: B) Transfer camera configurations between NVRs**4. When is the virtual host function used?
– A) To manage HDD quotas
– B) To configure PoE settings
– C) To connect devices in different network segments
– D) To export recorded files
– **Answer: C) To connect devices in different network segments**5. What is the purpose of HDD quota in secure data management?
– A) Protecting individual files
– B) Dividing HDD storage for different cameras
– C) Configuring network protocols
– D) Enhancing PoE transmission
– **Answer: B) Dividing HDD storage for different cameras**6. How does HDD group mode contribute to storage management?
– A) It assigns specific storage quotas to cameras
– B) It configures network protocols for data transmission
– C) It divides HDDs into multiple partitions
– D) It organizes cameras into different recording groups
– **Answer: D) It organizes cameras into different recording groups**7. Which level of data security protects individual files within the NVR?
– A) HDD level
– B) File level
– C) System level
– D) Network level
– **Answer: B) File level**8. What does system-level data security focus on?
– A) Protecting individual files
– B) Managing camera configurations
– C) Protecting physical hardware
– D) Enhancing network connectivity
– **Answer: C) Protecting physical hardware**9. What is the primary focus of secure data management in NVRs?
– A) Protecting data during transmission
– B) Protecting individual files from unauthorized access
– C) Managing camera protocols
– D) Enhancing network bandwidth
– **Answer: A) Protecting data during transmission**10. Which feature allows for more organized storage management in NVRs?
– A) Virtual host
– B) Enhanced PoE
– C) HDD quota
– D) IP channel import/export
– **Answer: C) HDD quota** - **True or False:**1. RAID 0 combines multiple HDDs into a logical unit and provides redundancy. (False)
2. RAID 1 offers excellent redundancy by mirroring data across multiple disks. (True)
3. RAID 5 requires a minimum of three disks and provides both good performance and redundancy. (True)
4. RAID 6 offers higher reliability compared to RAID 5 but has lower disk utilization. (True)
5. RAID 10 is a combination of RAID 1 and RAID 5. (False)
6. RAID 0 is suitable for mission-critical applications due to its excellent redundancy. (False)
7. RAID 1 has lower disk utilization because half of the disks are used for redundancy. (True)
8. RAID 5 achieves redundancy through the use of parity data. (True)
9. RAID 6 allows for the failure of up to two disks while maintaining data integrity. (True)
10. RAID 10 combines the performance benefits of RAID 0 with the redundancy of RAID 1. (True)**Multiple Choice Questions:**1. What is the primary advantage of RAID 0?
– A) Excellent redundancy
– B) Higher reading speed
– C) Lower disk utilization
– D) Good performance and redundancy
– **Answer: B) Higher reading speed**2. How does RAID 1 achieve redundancy?
– A) By dividing data into multiple parts
– B) By using parity data
– C) By mirroring data across multiple disks
– D) By combining multiple RAID levels
– **Answer: C) By mirroring data across multiple disks**3. What is the minimum number of disks required for RAID 5?
– A) 2
– B) 3
– C) 4
– D) 5
– **Answer: B) 3**4. What distinguishes RAID 6 from RAID 5?
– A) Higher performance
– B) Lower reliability
– C) Lower disk utilization
– D) Higher redundancy
– **Answer: D) Higher redundancy**5. Which RAID level is a combination of RAID 1 and RAID 0?
– A) RAID 5
– B) RAID 6
– C) RAID 10
– D) RAID 0
– **Answer: C) RAID 10**6. Why is RAID 0 not suitable for mission-critical applications?
– A) It offers excellent redundancy
– B) It has lower disk utilization
– C) It does not provide any redundancy
– D) It has slower reading speed
– **Answer: C) It does not provide any redundancy**7. What contributes to lower disk utilization in RAID 1?
– A) Higher performance
– B) Mirroring data across multiple disks
– C) Parity data storage
– D) Redundancy requirements
– **Answer: D) Redundancy requirements**8. How does RAID 5 achieve redundancy?
– A) By mirroring data across multiple disks
– B) By using parity data
– C) By dividing data into multiple parts
– D) By combining multiple RAID levels
– **Answer: B) By using parity data**9. How many disks can fail in RAID 6 while maintaining data integrity?
– A) One
– B) Two
– C) Three
– D) Four
– **Answer: B) Two**10. What advantage does RAID 10 offer?
– A) Higher reliability
– B) Lower disk utilization
– C) Redundancy through parity data
– D) Slower reading speed
– **Answer: A) Higher reliability** - **True or False:**1. eSATA is used as an interface to connect portable disks to NVRs. (True)
2. Cycle recording overwrites the HDD after it gets full to save resources. (True)
3. Redundant recording only saves recorded files on the working HDD, not on a redundant one. (False)
4. Expired recording automatically deletes files after reaching a configured expiration time. (True)
5. File lock prevents locked files from being overwritten during cycle recording. (True)
6. ANR stands for Auto Network Recovery and ensures data security during network breakdowns. (False)
7. N + M system security allows one backup NVR to take over the work of multiple offline working NVRs simultaneously. (False)
8. The limitation of N + M system security is 64, allowing configuration of up to 64 working NVRs and 64 backup NVRs in one system. (False)
9. Bandwidth control manages both incoming and outgoing data streams between IPC and NVR. (True)
10. Transcoded streams provide higher resolution, frame rate, and bit rate compared to mainstream for remote viewing. (False)**Multiple Choice Questions:**1. Which technology ensures data security during network breakdowns by recording video to an SD card in the camera?
– A) RAID
– B) Cycle recording
– C) ANR
– D) File lock
– **Answer: C) ANR**2. What does N + M system security refer to?
– A) Incoming and outgoing bandwidth control
– B) Redundant recording
– C) Backup NVR configuration for data redundancy
– D) HDD quota management
– **Answer: C) Backup NVR configuration for data redundancy**3. What is the main purpose of cycle recording?
– A) To save recorded files on a redundant HDD
– B) To automatically delete files after reaching a configured expiration time
– C) To overwrite the HDD after it gets full to save resources
– D) To prevent locked files from being overwritten during cycle recording
– **Answer: C) To overwrite the HDD after it gets full to save resources**4. What technology allows for fluent remote viewing under limited bandwidth by providing lower resolution and frame rate?
– A) RAID
– B) File lock
– C) Transcoded stream
– D) Expired recording
– **Answer: C) Transcoded stream**5. How does file lock contribute to data security?
– A) By mirroring data across multiple disks
– B) By automatically deleting files after a configured expiration time
– C) By preventing locked files from being overwritten during cycle recording
– D) By recording video to an SD card in the camera during network breakdowns
– **Answer: C) By preventing locked files from being overwritten during cycle recording** - **True or False:**1. Channel 0 combines multiple channel-related cameras’ images into a single channel to save bandwidth. (True)
2. N + M system security allows one backup NVR to take over multiple offline working NVRs simultaneously. (False)
3. Transcoded streams provide higher resolution, frame rate, and bit rate compared to mainstream for remote viewing. (False)
4. Access control and intercom management are part of non-video management on a Pick Vision NVR. (True)
5. Hikvision NVRs support various notification methods for alarm events, including audible warnings and email linkage triggers. (True)
6. One of the troubleshooting steps involves locating the problem through cross-testing. (True)
7. In case one of the troubleshooting scenario, the most likely reason for channels showing “no resource” during live view is insufficient decoding resources. (True)
8. RAID technology is used for non-video management on NVRs. (False)
9. Expired recording automatically backs up recorded files to a redundant HDD. (False)
10. ANR (Auto Network Retrieval) ensures data security by providing redundancy in HDD storage. (False)**Multiple Choice Questions:**
1. What is the purpose of Channel 0 on an NVR?
– A) To provide high-resolution video streaming
– B) To combine multiple camera images into a single channel to save bandwidth
– C) To manage access control and intercom devices
– D) To trigger audible alarms for security events
– **Answer: B) To combine multiple camera images into a single channel to save bandwidth**2. Which technology ensures data security during network breakdowns by recording video to an SD card in the camera?
– A) RAID
– B) Cycle recording
– C) ANR
– D) File lock
– **Answer: C) ANR**3. What is the primary function of transcoded streams in bandwidth control?
– A) To provide higher resolution for remote viewing
– B) To reduce the bandwidth required for remote viewing
– C) To increase the frame rate for remote viewing
– D) To enhance security for remote viewing
– **Answer: B) To reduce the bandwidth required for remote viewing**4. What is included in the non-video management function of a Pick Vision NVR?
– A) Access control and intercom management
– B) RAID configuration and management
– C) Transcoded stream optimization
– D) HDD quota management
– **Answer: A) Access control and intercom management**5. Which troubleshooting step involves restarting, resetting, or upgrading devices?
– A) Collecting basic information
– B) Locating the problem via cross-test
– C) Primary debugging
– D) None of the above
– **Answer: C) Primary debugging**
PTZ Camera Quiz
MCQ 1:
Which auto tracking version is specifically designed for reliable vehicle tracking?
(a) Auto Tracking 1.0
(b) Auto Tracking 2.0 [Correct]
(c) Auto Tracking 3.0
(d) None of the above
MCQ 2:
The primary advantage of optical defog over traditional image processing is:
(a) It works better in low light conditions
(b) It’s less computationally expensive
(c) It can produce clear images even in foggy environments [Correct]
(d) It improves color accuracy
MCQ 3:
Which vibration compensation method offers superior stabilization?
(a) EIS (Physical)
(b) OIS (Digital) [Correct]
(c) They offer equal stabilization
(d) Vibration compensation is not important in PTZ cameras
MCQ 4:
What is a key component required for the rapid focus function to work?
(a) A gyroscope
(b) A powerful image processor
(c) A calibration line [Correct]
(d) Near-infrared sensors
MCQ 5:
A PTZ camera produces images that are clear far away but blurry up close. The most likely cause is:
(a) The camera cover is dirty
(b) The zoom function is defective
(c) The minimum focusing distance is set too high [Correct]
(d) The camera needs a firmware upgrade
MCQ 6:
Hikvision PTZ cameras with ANPR functionality are used for:
(a) Automatic Number Plate Recognition [Correct]
(b) Advanced Night-time Performance Regulation
(c) Advanced Noise and Particle Reduction
(d) Anti-Fog Nano-Particle Reduction
MCQ 7:
Which of the following is NOT a typical step in PTZ troubleshooting?
(a) Collect basic information about the problem
(b) Cross-test with other devices to isolate the issue
(c) Replace the camera immediately [Correct]
(d) Try solutions like restarting or resetting
Absolutely! Here’s the breakdown of your text into the requested formats.
Formal English (Simplified)
Auto Tracking Evolution
PTZ cameras with advanced auto-tracking provide enhanced object tracking capabilities. Here’s a comparison:
Auto Tracking 1.0: Triggered by various object types.
Auto Tracking 2.0: Triggered only by vehicles (VCA rules), offering greater stability.
Auto Tracking 3.0: Can be triggered by vehicles or VCA rules, provides intelligent applications, and includes vehicle plate recognition.
Understanding Rapid Focus, Optical Defog, and Vibration Compensation
Rapid Focus: Pre-builds a 3D model to calculate focus data, enabling accurate focus when zoom changes.
Optical Defog: Employs near-infrared light to penetrate fog and produce clear images.
Vibration Compensation:
EIS (Physical): Reduces image resolution and FOV.
OIS (Digital): Uses a gyroscope and processor-controlled lens for better stabilization.
Hikvision PTZ Features
ANPR: Automatic Number Plate Recognition for vehicles (supports 84 countries).
Calibration Line: Necessary for the rapid focus 3D model.
Auto Tracking 2.0: Filters out false alarms from non-vehicle objects.
PTZ Troubleshooting
Collect Basic Information: Device details, problem details, logs.
Locate the Problem: Cross-testing to isolate the issue.
Debug: Restart, reset, upgrade, etc.
Case Studies:
Fuzzy Close-Up Image: Address the camera’s minimum focusing distance.
Partially Blurred Image: Check for dirt on the camera cover and clean it if needed.
Blog Post (Detailed)
Title: Understanding PTZ Cameras: From Auto Tracking to Troubleshooting
Introduction
PTZ (Pan-Tilt-Zoom) cameras offer dynamic surveillance capabilities. Let’s delve into their key features and troubleshooting techniques.
Auto Tracking: The Evolution
Auto Tracking 1.0: Basic object tracking, can be prone to false triggers.
Auto Tracking 2.0: Vehicle-specific tracking (using VCA rules) for enhanced reliability.
Auto Tracking 3.0: Intelligent tracking triggered by vehicles or VCA rules, includes vehicle plate recognition, and offers advanced applications.
Features for Optimal Image Clarity
Rapid Focus:
Uses a 3D model for pre-calculated focus adjustments.
Ensures sharp images even when zoom levels change.
Optical Defog:
Leverages near-infrared light to cut through fog.
Maintains image clarity in challenging weather conditions.
Vibration Compensation
EIS (Physical): Can compromise image quality.
OIS (Digital): Offers superior stabilization using a gyroscope and lens control.
Hikvision PTZ Innovations
ANPR: Automated license plate recognition across numerous countries.
Calibration Line: Essential for rapid focus functionality.
Auto Tracking 2.0: Avoids false alarms from non-vehicle objects.
PTZ Troubleshooting
Step 1: Information Gathering
Step 2: Problem Identification
Step 3: Debugging Solutions
Troubleshooting Examples
Fuzzy Close-Up Images: Adjust the minimum focusing distance.
Partial Blurring: Clean the camera cover and address any lens smudges.
True/False Questions
Auto Tracking 1.0 can be triggered by any moving object. (True)
Optical defog uses traditional image processing algorithms. (False)
A calibration line is essential for the rapid focus function. (True)
EIS offers better stabilization than OIS. (False)
Hikvision’s Auto Tracking 2.0 eliminates all false alarms. (False)
Minimum focusing distance can cause close-up image blur. (True)
Dirt on the camera cover will not impact image quality. (False)
Certainly! Here are 20 true/false questions and 20 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) based on the provided content:
True/False Questions:
1. True or False: Motion analysis utilizes background modeling technology to detect and record moving objects.
– True
2. True or False: Intrusion detection is a type of motion analysis that detects when an object enters a predefined region.
– True
3. True or False: People counting cameras utilize single lens technology for accurate counting.
– False
4. True or False: Dual lens people counting cameras can ensure accuracy exceeding 97%.
– True
5. True or False: The heat value in heat mapping is based on the number of people staying at a certain time.
– False
6. True or False: Heat mapping data is stored on an external server for analysis.
– False
7. True or False: Queue detection cameras can only detect the number of people in line.
– False
8. True or False: Queue management triggers an alarm when the wait time of each person exceeds a set threshold.
– True
9. True or False: Line crossing detection triggers an alarm if the object crosses the line by 50%.
– True
10. True or False: Motion analysis does not require any installation recommendations.
– False
11. True or False: People counting cameras require an SD card for data storage.
– True
12. True or False: Queue detection is primarily used in industrial settings.
– False
13. True or False: Intrusion detection uses a threshold for the time of object entry into a region.
– True
14. True or False: Heat mapping cameras use IR light for accurate heat detection.
– True
15. True or False: People counting cameras support separate counting of people entering and exiting.
– True
16. True or False: Queue management cameras support detection of the wait time of each person.
– True
17. True or False: Privacy masking remains stationary and does not adjust with camera movements.
– False
18. True or False: Motion analysis is commonly used in traffic surveillance systems.
– True
19. True or False: Dual lens people counting cameras require two channels on the NVR.
– False
20. True or False: Unattended baggage detection triggers an alarm if the object remains in the region for too long.
– True
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs):
1. What is the primary function of motion analysis?
a) Counting people
b) Detecting moving objects
c) Monitoring temperature
d) Analyzing sound
– Answer: b) Detecting moving objects
2. Which type of detection rule is based on the object’s crossing of a predefined line?
a) Region entrance detection
b) Intrusion detection
c) Line crossing detection
d) Object removal detection
– Answer: c) Line crossing detection
3. What type of camera is recommended for accurate people counting?
a) Single lens
b) Dual lens
c) Panoramic
d) Zoom
– Answer: b) Dual lens
4. Which factor contributes to the accuracy of dual lens people counting cameras?
a) IR light
b) Resolution
c) Lens size
d) Shadow reduction
– Answer: d) Shadow reduction
5. Where is heat mapping function commonly used?
a) Hospitals
b) Airports
c) Supermarkets
d) Libraries
– Answer: c) Supermarkets
6. Which Hikvision product supports heat mapping function?
a) PTZ camera
b) Bullet camera
c) Fisheye camera
d) Dome camera
– Answer: c) Fisheye camera
7. What does heat value represent in heat mapping?
a) Ambient temperature
b) Humidity level
c) Accumulative dwell time
d) Light intensity
– Answer: c) Accumulative dwell time
8. What is the primary benefit of queue detection?
a) Enhanced security
b) Improved efficiency
c) Increased sales
d) Better lighting
– Answer: b) Improved efficiency
9. How does line crossing detection trigger an alarm?
a) By detecting object color
b) By counting objects
c) By object’s direction of movement
d) By object’s size
– Answer: c) By object’s direction of movement
10. What should be considered when installing people counting cameras?
a) Distance from power source
b) Availability of Wi-Fi
c) Presence of obstacles
d) Ambient noise level
– Answer: c) Presence of obstacles
11. Which component is essential for data storage in people counting cameras?
a) External server
b) Cloud storage
c) SD card
d) USB drive
– Answer: c) SD card
12. Where is queue detection primarily applied?
a) Hospitals
b) Schools
c) Retail stores
d) Warehouses
– Answer: c) Retail stores
13. What does intrusion detection use to trigger an alarm?
a) Object’s color
b) Object’s shape
c) Object’s size
d) Object’s time of entry
– Answer: d) Object’s time of entry
14. What technology is used in heat mapping cameras for accurate detection?
a) GPS
b) LIDAR
c) IR light
d) Ultrasonic
– Answer: c) IR light
15. How does queue management improve efficiency?
a) By reducing wait time
b) By increasing noise level
c) By adjusting camera angle
d) By adding more staff
– Answer: a) By reducing wait time
16. Which feature distinguishes dual lens people counting cameras?
a) Built-in speaker
b) 360° view angle
c) Height adjustment
d) Shadow reduction
– Answer: d) Shadow reduction
17. What is the primary function of privacy masking?
a) People counting
b) Object detection
c) Area obscuring
d) Motion analysis
– Answer: c) Area obscuring
18. Where is motion analysis commonly used?
a) Restaurants
b) Construction sites
c) Traffic surveillance
d) Residential areas
– Answer: c) Traffic surveillance
19. What factor contributes to the accuracy of dual lens people counting cameras?
a) Height of camera
b) Position of camera
c) Time of day
d) Interference reduction
– Answer: d) Interference reduction
20.Which scenario is suitable for unattended baggage detection?
a) Warehouse
b) School
c) Park
d) Airport
Answer: d) Airport
